EMT Practice Test
1. Question Content...
Question1: Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a __________ for user authentication.
Question4: Which feature is NOT provided by all Check Point Mobile Access solutions?
Question5: What is the Implicit Clean-up Rule?
Question6: What kind of information would you expect to see using the sim affinity command?
Question10: Which NAT rules are prioritized first?
Question11: What are the main stages of a policy installations?
Question14: Which features are only supported with R81.10 Gateways but not R77.x?
Question15: Which of the following statements is TRUE about R81 management plug-ins?
Question21: What a valid SecureXL paths in R81.10?
Question23: What is considered Hybrid Emulation Mode?
Question26: Which one of the following is NOT a configurable Compliance Regulation?
Question28: What is true about the IPS-Blade?
Question29: What is the default shell for the command line interface?
Question30: Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API's?
Question38: What destination versions are supported for a Multi-Version Cluster Upgrade?
Question39: The WebUI offers several methods for downloading hotfixes via CPUSE except:
Question40: Which command would you use to set the network interfaces' affinity in Manual mode?
Question41: What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?
Question42: Fill in the blank: The IPS policy for pre-R81 gateways is installed during the _______ .
Question46: Automation and Orchestration differ in that:
Question48: What is UserCheck?
Question49: What is the limitation of employing Sticky Decision Function?
Question50: Which of these is an implicit MEP option?
Question51: VPN Link Selection will perform the following when the primary VPN link goes down?
Question53: Which of the following processes pulls the application monitoring status from gateways?
Question54: Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?
Question55: Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?
Question56: What are the modes of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?
Question57: What does the Log "Views" tab show when SmartEvent is Correlating events?
Question59: Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?
Question60: How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?
Question61: What will SmartEvent automatically define as events?
Question63: Which command lists firewall chain?
Question64: Which view is NOT a valid CPVIEW view?
Question65: CoreXL is supported when one of the following features is enabled:
Question66: What is mandatory for ClusterXL to work properly?
Question68: Which TCP port does the CPM process listen on?
Question70: Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?
Question71: What is Dynamic Balancing?
Question72: Which Remote Access Client does not provide an Office-Mode Address?
Question75: How many users can have read/write access in Gaia at one time?
Question76: Which of the following authentication methods ARE NOT used for Mobile Access?
Question79: Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by SmartEvent Processes?
Question80: In which formats can Threat Emulation forensics reports be viewed in?
Question83: GAiA Software update packages can be imported and installed offline in situation where:
Question84: Which command lists all tables in Gaia?
Question87: What is false regarding a Management HA environment?
Question90: Which packet info is ignored with Session Rate Acceleration?
Question92: Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?
Question93: What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?
Question94: What is the responsibility of SOLR process on R81.10 management server?
Question96: How often does Threat Emulation download packages by default?
Question98: What is the order of NAT priorities?
Question99: In R81 spoofing is defined as a method of:
Question100: Connections to the Check Point R81 Web API use what protocol?
Question101: The Correlation Unit performs all but the following actions:
Question102: What is not a component of Check Point SandBlast?
Question103: What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?
Question105: Which command is used to obtain the configuration lock in Gaia?
Question106: The Check Point history feature in R81 provides the following:
Question107: John detected high load on sync interface. Which is most recommended solution?
Question110: Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?
Question114: SmartConsole R81 requires the following ports to be open for SmartEvent R81 management:
Question115: When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?
Question116: fwssd is a child process of which of the following Check Point daemons?
Question120: What is the command to check the status of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?
Question121: What information is NOT collected from a Security Gateway in a Cpinfo?
Question122: Which command shows the current Security Gateway Firewall chain?
Question123: Which command shows only the table names of all kernel tables?
Question124: What solution is Multi-queue intended to provide?
Question125: What statement best describes the Proxy ARP feature for Manual NAT in R81.10?
Question126: As a valid Mobile Access Method, what feature provides Capsule Connect/VPN?
Question127: The SmartEvent R81 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:
Question129: Which options are given on features, when editing a Role on Gaia Platform?
Question131: What is true of the API server on R81.10?
Question132: How do Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?
Question133: Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?
Question136: Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?
Question138: Office mode means that:
Question139: You can access the ThreatCloud Repository from:
Question140: Which GUI client is supported in R81?
Question141: Fill in the blanks. There are ________ types of software containers: ___________.
Question142: Which one of the following is true about Threat Emulation?
Question144: SmartEvent Security Checkups can be run from the following Logs and Monitor activity:
Question146: What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?
Question147: What is the purpose of the CPCA process?
Question149: What is the difference between an event and a log?
Question152: Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?
Question153: What is the name of the secure application for Mail/Calendar for mobile devices?
Question154: Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?
Question155: The following command is used to verify the CPUSE version:
Question160: Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?
Question161: By default, the R81 web API uses which content-type in its response?
Question163: Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?
Question166: Which 3 types of tracking are available for Threat Prevention Policy?
Question168: What is the least amount of CPU cores required to enable CoreXL?
Question170: Which command can you use to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?
Question172: What is true about VRRP implementations?
Question174: What has to be taken into consideration when configuring Management HA?
